Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 02:08
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Can adults grow new brain cells? - Live Science
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Do you believe that it is right that one Federal judge can block a President's decisions?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.