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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 03:17

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why is it so common for married white women to have an affair with black men? Does it bother white guys?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.